Freed from the Norn connection

 

The difference is that in Standard English, you can use to be as an auxiliary with verbs of motion and change, such as I am come to rescue you! But in Orkney and Shetland, you can use it with any verb, including transitives (I am done something). This is unusual, compared to other varieties of English. Just over a hundred years ago, Wrights English dialect grammar claimed to have heard such sentences with be instead of have in southern Norfolk, Bedfordshire and Rutland. However, as Gunnel Melchers has pointed out, a century later it seems to have disappeared. Could it be something archaic which has survived here, but died out elsewhere? Interestingly, Yuri Yerstov has found that is certain areas of Canada, people say I am done [something], I am finished [something] and I am started [something]. While now restricted to these three verbs, Yerastov notes the similarity to the Shetland dialect, which he uses for comparison in his study, and he concludes that the Canadian usage probably has a Scottish origin.

So be and have are now in free variation in the Orkney and Shetland dialects: You can say Ive had me dinner or you may equally well say Im had me dinner it doesnt matter which, except the latter perhaps makes you sound a bit more local. How has to be come to be used so broadly?

Many people would now point to our usual suspect: Norn! Is this another instance of Norns influence on our Scottish dialect? Personally, I dont think so. But I will attempt to explain what the argument in favour of such a claim is, before explaining why I dont agree.

Various researchers have upheld the claim that the be instead of have has to do with Norn influence, but only one, as far as I know, has made an attempt at any in-depth proof. This is Alexander Pavlenko, writing about Shetland dialect. He makes two observations:

1)      When you abbreviate for example he is changed the tyres to hes changed the tyres, you no longer know whether the s is supposed to stand for is or has. (This, of course, applies to shes  and hids as well.)

2)      In late fragments of Norn, everything seems to end in a which is easy to spot for example in the following Norn fragment collected by Jakob Jakobsen: Jarta, bodena komena rontena Komba. This is supposed to mean: My heart (my dear), the boat (a boat) has come round de Kaim [a hill in Foula near the coast].

Now, Pavlenko makes a link from observation two to observation one. In order to do that, he needs to show that Norn also had confusion between has and is. He thinks that the fact that everything ends in a in late Norn caused a similar confusion to that between has and is when both are abbreviated to s in Scots/English.

To show what he means, he quotes three versions of a Norn verse known as The Trolls Message. Pavlenkos own English translation of this verse is: Go home to Fivla, and tell Divla that the dogs were fighting (or had/have fought) and had/have/burnt the bairns. This translation seems to be based on the Fetlar version of the verse, which is in a mixture of Scots and Norn, and goes: Geng hame to Fivla, and tell Divla at de honnins wis lopen in a tuilly and brunt de bonnins. He also quotes two versions from Foula, which are entirely in Norn, but doesnt attempt to translate them any differently from the Scots/Norn hybrid version from Fetlar.

The Foula 1 version contains the expression hdna bradna. Pavlenko says that the a at the end of the first word can mask either the Old Norse word for has (hefir)  or the word for is (er), but that these have both been merged into this one sound. In that sense, the situation is similar to s masking both is and has. He therefore concludes that this confusion in Norn influenced the native islanders learning of the incoming Scots language, leading them to generalise a limited use of be in Scots in expressions such as Im done 色 and Im begood 色 to all verbs, including transitives.

I will now explain why think Pavlenkos argument doesnt hold. Pavlenko reconstructs hdna bradna as Old Norse hundinn hefir bruninn, which would translate as the dog (hound) has burnt.  However, this understanding must be based on the mixed Scots and Norn version from Fetlar rather than on the Foula version itself, where it is not at all clear what the hdna is supposed to mean.

Indeed, when the Foula versions are examined without reference to the mixed Fetlar version, the dog doesnt seem to feature at all. In a completely unrelated article, Yelena Helgad籀ttir also happens to examine The Trolls Message.  Being a folklorist, she is able to provide parallels from Norway, Iceland and the Faroes, which in turn allows her to translate the Foula versions as Hear, hear ride/rider; Ride, ride, run; say [to] her [to] Divla, that [she] Vivla; copper-kettle; hand burn[t] which is quite different from Pavlenkos translation. There is no dog in it! So hdna instead represents the Old Norse 堯ヱ紳餃勳紳硃 meaning, not dog, but the hand! And in that case, the a is part of an entirely grammatical definite suffix (the), and does not represent to be or to have at all. Assuming that Helgad籀ttirs translation is right, we now have no evidence in the Trolls Message that hefir (has) and er (is) were merged into a in Norn. We can therefore not assume a Norn origin for constructions such as Im changed the tyres either.

However, Pavlenko does make one good observation, and that is his observation number one: That, for example, hes could represent both he is and he has and therefore cause confusion. However, this also applies to other varieties of English, and doesnt explain why the generalisation of to be has happened in Orkney and Shetland in particular. Why not everywhere? That, I cannot answer. I can only observe that it might have been helped along by the second person singular. If a Shetlander says Dus changed the tyres, you dont know if they what they mean is Du has 色 or Du is 色. This is possible because du takes is rather than are. This means that out of the three persons singular, you can only see the difference between to be and to have in the first person: Im changed the tyres. So in two out of three, you hear a sentence where you cant tell the difference between is and has. In Standard English, this happens only in the third person. I dont mean to say that this explains the whole emergence of free variation between to have and to be which we see in Orkney and Shetland, but at least this frees it from the Norn connection by explaining it with reference to current language usage only.